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One-level takeout action

#1 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 02:48

In 4th seat, you hold 109xx x AQ9xx Qxx. LHO opens the bidding with 1, partner doubles, RHO passes.

Question 1: What do you bid?

Say you bid 1 (as I did at the table), and partner rebids 1.

Question 2: What did partner show and how do you continue? Which bids are forcing?
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#2 User is offline   menggq 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 03:51

"In 4th seat, you hold ♠109xx ♥x ♦AQ9xx ♣Qxx. LHO opens the bidding with 1♣, partner doubles, RHO passes."

1C X P ?

1.1 was underbid.If u think suit sd be showed first time bid 2.In my opinion i wd
bid 2 which means 4+ and 8-10hcp probably.
2.1C X P 1D
P 1H P ?
for this bidding sequence,DBL and then 1H promised extra 17+hcp but not very strong enough otherwise sd cue bid
2C.I guess you hv a game contract,may 4S?3N?5D?...
1D wrong bid showed 7-hcp and denied any majors.how can make forcing bid again?If u hold really forcing hand
first round cue bid 2C to establish forcing.
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 04:00

2. two-parts:

Pard is too strong to overcall 1H, but the bid is not forcing and probably only has 5 in the suit. With 6+, he might well have jumped to 2H, although this depends on what your partnership's agreements on "too strong to overcall". Mine is 18+.

Apparently with values just short of a stronger advance (properly discounting the club queen), your plan when you bid 1D was to later bid the spade suit if there was more competition. I think if you bid 1S now, partner should pretty much figure out your size and shape.

This leads back to question #1. The 1D advance might not have been the choice of others, but it surely worked out well this time.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   karlson 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 04:08

I bid 1 the first time. If partner is of the school that requires 16hcp to raise 1 to 2 then I guess you have to bid 2 the first time.

Among other benefits, bidding spades first lets you bid 3 over 3 should they eventually compete to that level. Certainly 1 works out well though when partner has the heart hand as he did here.

Having bid 1 the first time, I would think 1 now should be forcing just based on general principles, but I admit I don't really know what kind of hand it should show. A very weak 4-4 is possible I guess, so maybe it should be NF. It's hard to imagine that there is no safe spot above 1 though.
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#5 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 04:10

2 for me, seems just about right.
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#6 User is offline   1eyedjack 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 05:19

1 for me. I don't expect the auction to die (at least if we have a game on), and I don't expect the Spades to be buried.
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Masterminding (pron. mPosted ImagesPosted ImagetPosted Imager-mPosted ImagendPosted Imageing) tr. v. - Any bid made by bridge player with which partner disagrees.

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#7 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 05:40

1 for me.

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 07:03

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-May-20, 04:00, said:

your plan when you bid 1D was to later bid the spade suit if there was more competition. I think if you bid 1S now, partner should pretty much figure out your size and shape.


1? We have GF values!!, I think 2 now is very obvious (and we still have to catch up because we could have less for that bid). 1 looks like....

xxxx
-
Jxxxxx
xx


I agree with you that the 1 bid has worked out pretty nicelly.
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#9 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 09:37

I would start with 2. First of all, it is probably our best fit. Second, if I bid first and opponents have a good fit, they can more easily double (not having is not so important) than (not having is a big issue)

Now that partner bids a new suit () we are in a GF situation and I finish my hand description with 2.

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#10 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 09:56

View PostFluffy, on 2011-May-20, 07:03, said:

1? We have GF values!!, I think 2 now is very obvious (and we still have to catch up because we could have less for that bid). 1 looks like....

xxxx
-
Jxxxxx
xx


I agree with you that the 1 bid has worked out pretty nicelly.

Yes, if I have only one bid, and only 12 cards, I would bid the major first. But your extreme example might make me rethink that idea.

The inference from not bidding 1S first is what creates the knowlege I have about 6-8.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#11 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 10:32

It seems everyone agrees that 1 shows 17+. At the table, I wasn't sure whether it mightn't be, say, a 4423 with 14-16 points. After all, 2 is not that high to have to jump with a truly strong hand.

Anyway, I bid 1, hoping that partner, like karlson, would think it forcing. Partner passed with his AKxx AKxx Kxx xx, and I made 3 overtricks. Partner believed that I had absolutely denied 8 HCP and should start with 2. I thought he might have bid 2 anyway...
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#12 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 10:43

2C on the 2nd round by the doubler is reasonable. 1H is horrible. Even a 1NT overcall, which is barely tolerable, would result in a spade game via stayman.
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#13 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 11:31

You need a clearly defined bidding structure for you responses to a TOX and for the rebids by the TOX hand. To play a 1 rebid by the TOX hand as 17+ strikes me as counterproductive as nonjump responses to a TOX have the widest spread of values. It is probably better to allow it to be slightly stronger than a minimal opener.
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#14 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2011-May-20, 23:57

I would bid 1S over the double.

1H shows 17+.

Having bid 1D initially, 2S now looks good.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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