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You are dealt a moderate hand with diamond length in second seat. RHO passes, you pass, LHO passes, partner opens 1S in 4th seat.
You are playing 2/1. A weak 2D is available, but disciplined (good suit, no 4CM, etc). Not playing two-way Drury.
Where is your cutoff between ---
Responding 2D;
Responding 1NT intending to pass/correct to 2S/whatever;
Responding 1NT intending to rebid 3D over 2H/2S/2NT.
In particular, would you characterize the passed-hand 2D response as being the same strength on average as a 1NT response, on average stronger but with a lot of overlap, or as consistently stronger than 1NT?
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Diamond suit in a passed hand
#1
- Alchemist
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Posted 2014-February-10, 23:06
#2
- Secretary Bird
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Posted 2014-February-11, 11:00
I expect it's a "wonky max weak 2" - either the undisciplined ones, or the ones with outside quacks, or v.good 5-card suit (AQJ8x?) ...
I would also bid 2♦ if I have a hand that really really doesn't want to get passed in 1NT (2/1 here doesn't mean 1NT 100%F by passed hand, right?), but would take the blame when partner jumps to 3NT and has no play.
I don't play 2-way Drury explicitly so that I can bid 2♦, so when it comes up, I don't want to go through 1NT. Partner is much better placed. I'll bid 1NT when I'm happy to play at the 2 level (rather than willing).
With 1NT NF, I'm not sure if I'd ever plan to bid 1NT-and-3♦; what kind of hand is so sure it's better in a minor that it's worth playing at the three level, that isn't good enough for my description of 2♦, and is more comfortable playing 1NT than 1 of partner's real suit? Note: in my area p-1M; 1NT-2NT; 3x is still GF (yours might not be).
I wouldn't say consistently stronger, but partner with a gameish hand will be better placed knowing I have diamonds than knowing I have "something".
Oh, and finally, my primary partnership at the moment is K/S. So there are hands that everybody else in the room is opening 1♦ that we're passing; factor that into my thoughts.
I would also bid 2♦ if I have a hand that really really doesn't want to get passed in 1NT (2/1 here doesn't mean 1NT 100%F by passed hand, right?), but would take the blame when partner jumps to 3NT and has no play.
I don't play 2-way Drury explicitly so that I can bid 2♦, so when it comes up, I don't want to go through 1NT. Partner is much better placed. I'll bid 1NT when I'm happy to play at the 2 level (rather than willing).
With 1NT NF, I'm not sure if I'd ever plan to bid 1NT-and-3♦; what kind of hand is so sure it's better in a minor that it's worth playing at the three level, that isn't good enough for my description of 2♦, and is more comfortable playing 1NT than 1 of partner's real suit? Note: in my area p-1M; 1NT-2NT; 3x is still GF (yours might not be).
I wouldn't say consistently stronger, but partner with a gameish hand will be better placed knowing I have diamonds than knowing I have "something".
Oh, and finally, my primary partnership at the moment is K/S. So there are hands that everybody else in the room is opening 1♦ that we're passing; factor that into my thoughts.
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#3
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Posted 2014-February-11, 20:55
2d as a passed hand would be good diamonds and a max passed hand.
for me I can not really have 1nt then 3d hand as a passed hand.
fwiw I don't play wk 2d opener if that matters so I may bid 2d as a passed hand a bit more often ...
1nt then 2s would be roughly 5-7 and 2 or 3 spades.
for me I can not really have 1nt then 3d hand as a passed hand.
fwiw I don't play wk 2d opener if that matters so I may bid 2d as a passed hand a bit more often ...
1nt then 2s would be roughly 5-7 and 2 or 3 spades.
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