cardsharp, on Oct 2 2004, 05:39 PM, said:
In this case I agree with Ben that West has fielding the psyche, that is he has taken an action (2♠, no final double) that allows for a very weak 1NT bid from partner.
well i obviously disagree, but maybe we're simply discussing semantics... i believe it's possible that at some point wayne became suspicious that the 1nt opening wasn't what he expected... now, if that happened is he bound to bid (including doubling 3nt) as if he *isn't* suspicious? i don't think so
let's say that after he bid 3s, and his rho bid 3nt, a light bulb went off and he's thinking "whoa nellie, my pard must have opened light over there"... is this "fielding" the psych? i say no...
to me fielding a psych is to bid in a way contrary to your stated agreements, because you have seen such and such a bid in such and such a situation from this partner before... imagine wayne's rho had passed instead of x'ing... also suppose that wayne's hand, in their methods, is worth an invitational bid (whatever it would be for them)... yet, because his pard opened 1nt in 3rd seat, he signed off ... that would show an awareness of pard's tendencies and would be wrong
when he passed 3nt instead of doubling, why should he alert his bid and say "i'm passing because it appears to me that partner may have psyched?"
i've told this story before, but the first time i played with richard, he psyched a 3rd seat 1nt opening... fine, nothing at all wrong with that... no harm, no foul... the 2nd time we played, there came a point when he again opened 1nt in 3rd seat... i pm'd both ops and said "he has psyched in this situation before"... was i correct to do this? i bid as if the 1nt was real, of course (happened to be a pass, but that's just the way it goes)

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ing) tr. v. - Any bid made by bridge player with which partner disagrees.