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4522, p opens 1nt

#1 User is offline   frouu 

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Posted 2009-June-01, 12:51

Scoring: IMP

1nt - (p) - ??


We play 2/1, 15-17NT agreed to use smolen convention.
With this hand:
Do you transfer to ? Then do you invite when p completes transfer?
Or do you bid stayman here? If partner bids 2, do you use smolen, or 2 (nonforcing)? Do you pass/invite/bid game if p bids 2 or 2?

Thanks in advance!!
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-June-01, 12:54

If p responds 2 to Stayman, 2 is enough. If he responds 2 I would invite. If he responds 2 I pass.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#3 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2009-June-01, 13:13

Agree with Helene except I would also pass 2.
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#4 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-June-01, 13:16

2 then 2 over 2 and pass partner's 2M bids.
Yay for the "Ignored Users" feature!
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#5 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2009-June-01, 13:18

helene_t, on Jun 1 2009, 01:54 PM, said:

If p responds 2 to Stayman, 2 is enough. If he responds 2 I would invite. If he responds 2 I pass.

While it makes me feel just a tad wimpy, I agree 100%. Now if my 10 we a I'd like my hand better and be more inclined to invite over 2.

I think this is a great hand for a sim. .. neilkaz ..
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