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Have we told our story?

#1 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 13:25

Tx
AK9x
AQT87
9x

Uncontested auction. You are dealer, love all at MP.

1 - 1
1NT - 2 (ART GF)
2 - 2
3 - 3NT
?

1) Do you pass now?

2) If you are a passer, would you change your call with Qx or Kx in spades? (and say no K)
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#2 User is offline   Apollo81 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 13:27

1. Yes, I think we have told our story.

2. No, I think partner is showing a club stopper and would have bid 3M if he was interested in our black suit holdings.
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#3 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:01

Seems like an easy pass.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#4 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:05

yup pass
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#5 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:27

2 was only game force. You have said your peace. Pass seems clear to me. Partner could have bid 4NT as quantitative if he had grander visions.
--Ben--

#6 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:28

Maybe I'm thinking differently here. The issue is not trying for slam. It's whether we think we are in the right strain. Doesn't this sound like a hand where the 5-2 spade fit might play better?
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#7 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:33

4 is too creative for me. With Hx in spades, I would consider it much, much more seriously, but I would still pass.
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#8 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:42

Echognome, on Feb 12 2008, 02:28 PM, said:

Maybe I'm thinking differently here. The issue is not trying for slam. It's whether we think we are in the right strain. Doesn't this sound like a hand where the 5-2 spade fit might play better?

Of course this is about choice of games, but we have described our hand very well and partner made a decision. The only clue about partner's hand that we have is that he was still interested in playing a 5-3 fit over 2. I don't see any reason to overrule partner when he bid 3N rather than stalling with 3. He could see himself that we have two spades (no 3 bid) and probably no club stopper (no 2N bid).
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#9 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:45

cherdano, on Feb 12 2008, 12:42 PM, said:

Of course this is about choice of games, but we have described our hand very well and partner made a decision. The only clue about partner's hand that we have is that he was still interested in playing a 5-3 fit over 2. I don't see any reason to overrule partner when he bid 3N rather than stalling with 3. He could see himself that we have two spades (no 3 bid) and probably no club stopper (no 2N bid).

Those are some good points. Thx. I was just trying to think of hands for partner to hold. Would he bid this way with:

AQJxx xxx xx AQx?

If so, might the club lead through us at trick 1 give us some trouble in 3N, whereas 4 stands better chances?

I don't know. I was just trying to think what hands are likely based on the bidding.
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#10 User is offline   bid_em_up 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:46

Echognome, on Feb 12 2008, 03:28 PM, said:

Maybe I'm thinking differently here. The issue is not trying for slam. It's whether we think we are in the right strain. Doesn't this sound like a hand where the 5-2 spade fit might play better?

Shouldn't it be a 6-2 fit? Otherwise, what was the purpose of 2S? Partner could have bid 2N with only 5 spades and a club stop (instead of 2S).

Mark me down for 4S.
Is the word "pass" not in your vocabulary?
So many experts, not enough X cards.
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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:48

For me, I would have shown the 2=4=5=2 shape with this sequence, and can rest comfortably in the knowledge that partner would usually be able to have chosen 4 if that were best (I would not have patterned out with 2=4=5=2 and a club stop... I would have bid 2N).

If you are amongst those who rebid 1N on 1=4=5=3 hands, then maybe you have a problem, since now you have an 'extra' spade and an undisclosed ruffing value, but I think pass is still correct.
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#12 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:50

mikeh, on Feb 12 2008, 02:48 PM, said:

If you are amongst those who rebid 1N on 1=4=5=3 hands, then maybe you have a problem, since now you have an 'extra' spade and an undisclosed ruffing value, but I think pass is still correct.

Those who rebid 1N with 1=4=5=3 might well rebid 3 over 2 with that shape.
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#13 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 14:58

cherdano, on Feb 12 2008, 03:50 PM, said:

mikeh, on Feb 12 2008, 02:48 PM, said:

If you are amongst those who rebid 1N on 1=4=5=3 hands, then maybe you have a problem, since now you have an 'extra' spade and an undisclosed ruffing value, but I think pass is still correct.

Those who rebid 1N with 1=4=5=3 might well rebid 3 over 2 with that shape.

on x AKxx AQxxx xxx? I am not saying you are wrong, because I don't play the style: my 1N rebids come with 2+ support assured :)

But I would have thought that some of the 'rebid 1N with a stiff' school might do it with some 1=4=4=4 hands, and now surely 3 would be the rebid here?

As I say, I don't play this approach, nor do any local experts where I live so I am willing to learn... but I sure don't, at first blush, like the idea of 3 showing xxx.

In fact, I think that for me the sequence of 1, then 1N then 2 then 3 would be a 3=4=4=2 hand with the club Ace and full values, co-operating with partner :( (Assuming that one shows the 4 card heart suit over 2 with 3=4 majors, as I do in my partnerships).
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#14 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-February-12, 15:13

If partner had 6 spades he would bid 3S over 3D. So with 1453 you can avoid 4S that way. To me 2S is always the bid with 5 spades, and 2N just shows 4 spades and is interested in slam.
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#15 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-February-12, 17:41

Assuming that this is part of two-way checkback, you have three ways to show five spades and game values. I think you should use them like this:
2C then 3NT = five spades, notrump oriented - opener can pass with three spades
2D then 3NT = five spades, to play any 5-3 fit. Opener must bid 4S with three.
2D then 2S = five spades, suit oriented. Raises the possibility of a 5-2 fit.
2D then 2NT = a slam try without five spades.

With this agreement, I'd bid 4S.

Without any agreement about the different routes to 3NT, you have to guess what he's trying to show. That's a consequence of not having detailed agreements.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#16 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-February-12, 21:10

Don't agree with 2D then 3N, I think that you are just bidding 3N with the new knowledge that partner has 4 hearts. You may have just been worried about hearts.
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#17 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2008-February-13, 03:23

Jlall, on Feb 13 2008, 04:10 AM, said:

Don't agree with 2D then 3N, I think that you are just bidding 3N with the new knowledge that partner has 4 hearts. You may have just been worried about hearts.

So responder has only four spades, short hearts and fewer than five clubs (because he didn't respond 2C to 1D); after a 2S or 2NT reply he would have investigated the possibility of five of a minor, but is now happy to play 3NT without further investigation, having drawn attention to his heart weakness. Something like a 4=1=5=3 with a stiff honour, or maybe a 4=2=4=3?

That's quite a specific hand, though having three ways to show five spades on the way to game is also quite specific.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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