[pescetom]

MP

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NS are intermediates.

Your agreements over opponent's 1♥ opening are vanilla: a 1♠ overcall is 5+ cards 8+ HCP, a 2♠ overcall is 6 cards weak, X is takeout.
A 1♠ overcall seems automatic (but let us know if you disagree).

Partner's 3♥ cue is a spades raise, invitational or better.
Your call now?
Please answer poll and comment here.

[mike777]

4S

Under the theory invite conservatively, accept aggressively

I understand 3S at MP
I understand XX showing first round control in H
All reasonable

[mw64ahw]

No option to bid 3N?

[pescetom]

mw64ahw, on 2026-October-14, 14:58, said:

No option to bid 3N?

I added this and more

[WasWinM]

MP is the problem. In the poll I answered 4S but that was before I noticed it was match points. There is a lot of bidding going on for partner to have more than an invitational hand, although it is possible.
I'm thinking maybe QJxx, xx, xxx, AKJx. I think if I pass, partner can show his strength with bid/redouble. After more careful thought, I think it's right to pass and try to find out more info from partner.
It may well be were par is 3S undoubled and first to double a 4-bid gets the top.
PS: I changed my vote to pass.

[mike777]

I was tempted to give North something closer to zero hcp...
I'm not all that convinced by south's maximal game try double

[pescetom]

 mike777, on 2026-October-14, 15:43, said:

I was tempted to give North something closer to zero hcp...
I'm not all that convinced by south's maximal game try double

South is not very good, double might be just indignation with plenty of hearts.

[jillybean]

Is North any good?

4♦ - I have my full bid, and a diamond control

where is the poll?

[HardVector]

It depends upon your overcall agreements vul vs non-vul. Non-vul is the only time I bring out the 8 pt hands. If, on the other hand, you guys will overcall with 8 points vulnerable, then this is an accept.

[shyams]

Is there a poll? I can't view it.

When I look at this post, all I see is the opening post with a diagram and text. No poll.

[mikeh]

If we think that slam is possible, then redouble seems clear. If we hear 4C, we pretty much have to bid 4D to be consistent with our view that we may have slam. We pass 4S.

Personally, I don’t think slam is at all probable so I bid contract I expect to make slightly more often than not: 4S. I’ll pass if south balances with 5H. This is a forcing pass situation for me due to the vulnerability

[pescetom]

 shyams, on 2026-October-14, 22:09, said:

Is there a poll? I can't view it.

When I look at this post, all I see is the opening post with a diagram and text. No poll.

This is the second consecutive time a poll disappears. It was there, with the 4S vote of first to reply. I later edited the poll to add 3NT and Other, but it was still there after that too (ten hours ago).
Looks like a new forum bug.

[P_Marlowe]

4S

1S is normal.

I agree, it is thin playing MP, but whatever, and my reg. p will tell you,
"I know, why I dont play MP with him."

[pescetom]

mikeh, on 2026-October-14, 23:21, said:

If we think that slam is possible, then redouble seems clear.

What exactly is redouble for you here, Mike?
And what would Pass have been?

[mikeh]

What I would have thought was standard: 1st round control, good hand

[pescetom]

mikeh, on 2026-October-15, 14:33, said:

What I would have thought was standard: 1st round control, good hand

And Pass would be no control, any cue also implies 2nd round control?

Just trying to understand what is standard at your level, I don't have the luxury of playing with people who discuss these things or know.

[pescetom]

MP

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Partner had cold feet, do you take the push?

[akwoo]

With the West hand, I would pass - which I think should be a blame transfer. I would bid 4S at IMPs.


With the East hand, after a blame transfer pass and opponents bidding 4H, I'd bid 4S. Otherwise I'd pass 4H and see what partner comes up with. I'm most worried that partner will have something like QJx in hearts and we'll be under Law.

[pescetom]

akwoo, on 2026-October-15, 15:37, said:

With the West hand, I would pass - which I think should be a blame transfer. I would bid 4S at IMPs.

That's one of my questions here.
Should it be blame transfer, or should it be denial of control, or even else?

[mikeh]

3H created a force to 3S. Partner rejected our invitation. If we trust partner, we’re done unless we felt that we had a gf over the 1S bid. Bidding 4S on a hand that is worth only an invite is a violation of partnership discipline.

Showing both hands before adding the question inevitably biases the responses. We can all see that 4S is making.

I’d pass as east if any of my real life partners bid 3S. 3S is a sign of a horrible hand…partner had pass available if he was close to going to game.

The double, which I suspect was what we call a ‘fatuous’ double, gave us an extra nuance.

Had south passed 3H, west has a binary decision…go/no go….ignoring the infrequent slam tries, which cuebid. Once south doubles, we have two…not one…two extra nuances. A lot of non experts don’t realize what fatuous doubles give to good opponents. We can bid 3S…the absolute worst hand we could hold. Utterly ridiculous on the hand. We can pass, indicating a hand that is on the borderline between 3S and 4S.

We have redouble, a slam try promising first round control. We can bid game. We can cuebid a minor, denying first round heart control but still a slam try.

The only justification for 4S is an utter lack of trust for partner, whose 3S bid is awful.