I deal and pass. My partner opens weak 2M, which is passed to me.
What will 2NT by me mean? Is there a case for bidding it? Thanks.
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Passed hand bid
#2
Posted 2025-August-03, 01:05
A bid for every hand, not a hand for every bid. What hand type would first pass and now has bidding difficulties?
I think the bid doesn't exist, and it's not a good idea to try to find a use for it.
As an aside, if we have a passed hand and partner opens 2M, it's quite unexpected that the opponents are silent.
I think the bid doesn't exist, and it's not a good idea to try to find a use for it.
As an aside, if we have a passed hand and partner opens 2M, it's quite unexpected that the opponents are silent.
#3
Posted 2025-August-03, 02:21
I apologise for the error. The bidding was P (P) 2S (Dbl) 2NT. What types of hand would it show?
#4
Posted 2025-August-03, 07:35
I don't think it makes sense as a natural bid, in the circumstances.
It's not easy to imagine a sound conventional use after double, either.
It's not easy to imagine a sound conventional use after double, either.
#5
Posted 2025-August-03, 11:14
McCabe uses this after the double as "I think they're passing this for a good score, I have a place to play".
In context, almost certainly a weak 2♣ opener (what other hand would not have preempted in first? Okay, if you play "I don't preempt with a side 4-card major in first, then 0=4=6=3 or 0=4=7=2, maybe).
In context, almost certainly a weak 2♣ opener (what other hand would not have preempted in first? Okay, if you play "I don't preempt with a side 4-card major in first, then 0=4=6=3 or 0=4=7=2, maybe).
Long live the Republic-k. -- Major General J. Golding Frederick (tSCoSI)
#6
Posted 2025-August-03, 19:37
harikannan, on 2025-August-03, 00:08, said:
What will 2NT by me mean? Is there a case for bidding it? Thanks.
As a passed hand, 2NT as natural makes no sense opposite another hand that isn't an opening bid. If responder had enough to bid a natural 2NT, they would have opened the bidding. Otherwise, partner is contracting for 8 tricks with a likely less than half the deck.
So, 2NT is probably meant as the same forcing and artificial bid that it would by an unpassed hand over a weak 2 bid. Since responder is a passed hand, responder probably has a distributional hand with good major suit support that may make a game with minimal HCP. The infrequency of a sequence like this makes having a different set of responses for passed and unpassed hand 2NT bidders unfeasible in terms of memory and use of time spent on partnership bidding.
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