One point that was barely referenced in the discussion is the meaning of x then 2
♣ over partner's (obvious) 1N bid.
There is a school of thought, to which I happen to belong, that after (1M) x (P) 1N (P) 2m is weak, as in a shaded 4441 (if we rebid 2
♣) or a weak 5431 with 5 diamonds, if we rebid 2
♦.
The point is that advancer may well have only one stop in the major, and 8-10 hcp, and is known not to hold 4 in the other major, so rates to hold a fit or at least tolerance for one of the minors, and 2m will usually play as well as or better than 1N, and (critically) often fail by less when it is failing. On a bad day advancer was bidding on Jxxx and the defence to 1N is low to the Q and back to the AK10xxx
, squeezing dummy
If this is a viable approach to bidding after a 1N advance to a direct double, should it not be similar when the double is in balance seat? Bear in mind that the lower limit for a balancing double is probably a little lower than for a direct double. Otoh, positionally the 1N is better placed after the balancing double than the direct, and indeed, the upper range for 1N is a little higher for the balancing double situation, because the double can be a little weaker.
Now, had my partner bid 2D, after my double, I'd be very, very puzzled. As it is, I am a bit puzzled. The opps have 10 spades between them and the only action they took was a 1S opening. If dealer had 7, he should bid 2S (at least, possibly 3, but that depends on his hand), and if responder had 4, he should raise spades, either immediately or at the very least after the 2D response.
If I were doubler, I'd mentally place partner with spade length...not definitively, since one gets used to the opps mis-describing their hands....could partner be, for example, xxxx xx Axxxx xx? For sure he could. But he could be xxxx xx Axxxx Ax as well: that isn't enough to bid 3D imo. So I think one has to raise. The hand isn't good enough for 2S, and there is (usually) no point in misdescribing our hand via 3C....we have found a fit, and KQJx should be adequate support.
Over 3D, partner would either pass (anyone bad enough to bid 2D is bad enough to be completely unpredictable here) or bid 3N. However, if he bid 3N, I'd be wondering what to do, since I have to assume that he did not misbid the first time....if he couldn't bid 1N, what does he have? A hand too weak to bid a (constructive) 1N advance, or a hand too shapely?
Anyway, back in the real world of a 1N advance, I think responder can bid 2S to force, although it is borderline. If partner owns to a 3
♣ call, I will commit to the minor game. All other advances fetch 3N. On a high-level, bidding 2S then 3N suggests doubt about 3N. Hands that want to play in 3N opposite all 1N advances bid 3N, not 2S.
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari