[FrancesHinden]

Trinidad, on 2013-June-27, 09:04, said:

That's certainly true, but that is not the relevant question. The relevant question is: "What does 2♠ mean when -absent agreement- partner bids it?". The only explanation (other than "partner forgot" or "he is nuts") is "good hearts and something in spades". And absent agreements "something in spades" means values or length.

And -just for the record- you do not need to have agreements on everything. Some things just follow from bridge logic. This is one of them. If I would play natural sign-offs with a good partner without further agreements, I would bid 2♠ with a hand with good hearts and secondary spades. And I would expect a good partner to understand that.


I have seen players bid like that too, but only while they were still in the bridge course. I have never seen anyone do that at the club level or higher.

Rik

I've seen a player with an open olympiad silver medal bid like that.
If you come from some backgrounds, you bid suits you've got and don't bid suits you haven't got. With a fit for partner, you raise.

[Fluffy]

The OP says that west conveyed no UI and east;s final pass is just due to the poor bridge all around, I can believe it, but I would still double check and ask East about his final pass.

[Zelandakh]

Noone yet seems to have picked up the fact that East made a third seat 1NT opening here. Surely one possible meaning for their 2♠ bid is "I have psyched and have a weak hand with long spades." Similarly, someone commented that West knows that South has spades. How is that precisely? Is it impossible for the hearts to be 6-5-2-0 around the table? Or for South to have fudged with ♥AKQ98? Or misbid with a long minor? Or heck, even psyched?

I think the whole discussion of auction alternatives is just missing the point here. With correct information South is leading a spade and now 2NT is going off enough to compensate for those 140s. Add a PP on top of that for East's unnecessary comments.