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Is this decision to use RKC standard?
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RKC with void
#1
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Posted 2012-January-01, 15:26
#2
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Posted 2012-January-02, 07:12
book bid is 4♠, showing 12+TP which corresponds to the North values having 12TP here.
Anyway it seems like GIB having double fit upgraded for using 4NT directly.
Seems conservative pass at 5♥, but likely the simulated hands can't exclude the opportunity of declarer having 3 Aces or 2A+K of trumps and as no queen, the slam could be in jeopardy of guessing trumps as main problem.
For good 6♥ you need AKQ and at least QJ in ♣ otherwise to protect bad trump split with club lead.
Anyway it seems like GIB having double fit upgraded for using 4NT directly.
Seems conservative pass at 5♥, but likely the simulated hands can't exclude the opportunity of declarer having 3 Aces or 2A+K of trumps and as no queen, the slam could be in jeopardy of guessing trumps as main problem.
For good 6♥ you need AKQ and at least QJ in ♣ otherwise to protect bad trump split with club lead.
#3
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Posted 2012-January-03, 01:29
georgi, on 2012-January-02, 07:12, said:
book bid is 4♠, showing 12+TP which corresponds to the North values having 12TP here.
Anyway it seems like GIB having double fit upgraded for using 4NT directly.
....
Anyway it seems like GIB having double fit upgraded for using 4NT directly.
....
I dont really understand the upgrade explanation. The idea that one does not ask for aces with void is irrespective of the hand point or playing strength, it is about your ability to deduce the right contract. Only when you can be sure that one of partners aces is not in your void (for example a denied control in that suit) that you can safely ask aces, because only then you know if they are the right aces. Here, there is no reason for GIB to assume that one of south aces is not in ♠, on the other hand GIB has a perfectly equivalent bid (4♠) which says exactly that - "partner I dont want to ask 4NT myself (i.e. I have void), and sufficient strength to suggest slam but not to force one". 4♠ does not limit the hand in any way.
Indeed, this hand should stop at 5♥, but it is irrelevant to the OP - why does GIB ask RKCB with void?
Yehudit Hasin
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#4
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Posted 2012-January-05, 16:18
Yu18772, on 2012-January-03, 01:29, said:
why does GIB ask RKCB with void?
Because GIB doesn't know bidding principles. It ran simulations, and in enough of them RKCB led to a better result than 4♠, so it bid it.
It would be possible for us to add a rule that disables simulations with a void. But there are exceptions to this principle, and it would be hard to ensure we got this right (e.g. if partner has already shown or denied this Ace, or we have all the other key cards, it's safe because there's no ambiguity).
#5
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Posted 2012-September-11, 19:34
Another one. It's not at all clear to me how this auction should go, but South hasn't even shown support at the time of RKC...
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