How would you bid these hands? Is slam worth pursuing? What if the opening bid was 5♦?
How would these two be bid? After a pre-empt
#1
Posted 2011-November-20, 17:11
How would you bid these hands? Is slam worth pursuing? What if the opening bid was 5♦?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
My YouTube Channel
#2
Posted 2011-November-20, 17:49
#3
Posted 2011-November-20, 19:14
(4/5D) P (P) X
(P) 4/5S Pass
to be a popular auction.
"...we live off being battle-scarred veterans who manage to hate our opponents slightly more than we hate each other. -- Hamman, re: Wolff
#4
Posted 2011-November-21, 03:20
JLOGIC, on 2011-November-20, 17:49, said:
Is your West accepting an invitation, or just admitting to a diamond control? With such poor suits, I don't think I'd accept an invitation as West.
I usually think that a five-level raise after a preempt should be played as invitational as well as denying a control in the enemy suit. Maybe this one is different, though?
This post has been edited by gnasher: 2011-November-21, 03:25
#5
Posted 2011-November-21, 03:35
#6
Posted 2011-November-21, 03:44
gnasher, on 2011-November-21, 03:20, said:
I usually think that a five-level raise after a preempt should be played as invitational as well as denying a control in the enemy suit. Maybe this one is different, though?
Obv I meant 5S as demanding a bid of slam with a diamond control. Your treatment seems fine/reasonable. To be honest I was considering breaking discipline with the west hand and passing anyways, which suggests that your suggested treatment is correct lol.
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Nice. It would not surprise me if this was the percentage action. This would be a symptom of the problem that partner has no way to invite slam while showing no diamond control (assuming you play 5S as demanding a slam bid opposite a control). Of course if 5S is a demand for slam opposite a diamond control, you have no way to invite without one, and an invitational hand is likely much more common of a hand type opposite such a wide range, going back to gnasher being right.
If 5C or 5H was a cuebid, that might help this situation. Or perhaps if 5D could be any slam try, and partner would last train with a reasonable hand and a diamond control, that would be a partial solution (partner would also last train or bid slam with a nice hand and no diamond control, this could get you into some trouble, but it would be a rare set of hands where both hands are very strong and have no diamond control, they'd probably need almost everything else, or AKQ opposite a void where there is major duplication or something).
I'm not really into optimizing for every auction though, and my general meta rule would be that 5x is natural, 5D shows a diamond control, and 5S says bid slam with a diamond control, but gnashers meta agreement that 5S is a slam try without a diamond control seems better. How often do you have a slam force opp a diamond control really? Except in this thread!
#7
Posted 2011-November-21, 03:45
#8
Posted 2011-November-21, 04:13
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I was wondering about that. In sequences where the overcaller has jumped to 4M, I think it's best to play new suits as cue-bids. I'm not sure whether the same would apply in this sequence, though.
The 4♠ bidder has a wide range of hands, and his trump suit can be pretty weak, so I can imagine that there are hands where a 5♣ signoff would work well, with advancer having short spades and lots of clubs. On the other hand, even if I had a 5♣ signoff available, I don't think I'd use it very often, because it would be rare to know that 5♣ would be a better contract.
This post has been edited by gnasher: 2011-November-21, 04:21
#9
Posted 2011-November-21, 04:22
gnasher, on 2011-November-21, 04:13, said:
In sequences where the overcaller has jumped to 4M, I think it's best to play new suits as cue-bids.
Definitely. I would assume this is standard, partner has shown a strong 1 suiter basically, not like you're going to pull it. I guess 4S over 4H could be a cause of debate, but not 5 level bids.
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Meh. You will never know, but presumably there will be hands where it's percentage to bid 5 clubs opposite the wide range of possible spade holdings partner can have. Sucks if he has 7 good ones himself but this is not that likely. Especially if the auction was (4H)-4S, but even over (4m)-4S. I would be bidding with as little as a reasonably good 7 card suit and a stiff spade, I wouldn't have to wait for an 8 bagger or 7 nearly solid or anything.
That said it could be that that is infrequent enough + sometimes it's wrong to be pulling anyways + you would gain a lot by having 5x be a cuebid all combining to make it better to not play it as natural, but I wouldn't guess that that is so.
#10
Posted 2011-November-21, 04:57
4♦-Pa-Pa-X
Pa-4♥-Pa-???
Shall East pass? Wouldn't 4♥ be standard with 4-4 in the Majors? But also with the Majors reversed in the actual hand?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
My YouTube Channel
#11
Posted 2011-November-21, 05:11
Hanoi5, on 2011-November-21, 04:57, said:
4♦-Pa-Pa-X
Pa-4♥-Pa-???
Shall East pass? Wouldn't 4♥ be standard with 4-4 in the Majors? But also with the Majors reversed in the actual hand?
I would correct to 4S.
#12
Posted 2011-November-21, 05:39
I find that this reversal works well in a number of situations; in auctions where we are certain to have a control in their suit (typically grand tries) then the reversed cue shows 1 loser in the suit while bypassing the cue shows 0 losers. The point is that with a control in their suit we are usually better able to take control whereas without a control we will generally need to seek partner's opinion. Gnasher's idea of switching 4NT and 5D may be even better but it is hard to say without having tried it.
#13
Posted 2011-November-21, 05:52
Zelandakh, on 2011-November-21, 05:39, said:
Perfect

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