kenberg, on 2012-May-13, 08:28, said:
The second sentence I want to focus on. Why are they having this success with exports? And I assume we cannot arrange things so that everyone has an export surplus? That would be like everyone having an income that is above the average income.
Observation 1.
When I was young and before you were born, I once owned a BSA motorcycle. At the time, some people rode Honda 50 cc cycles. These were considered "cute". They were not allowed on serious highways. Now I drive a Honda Accord, and Hondas and Toyotas account for a sizable percentage of the cars on American roads.
Observation 2:
I just finished teaching a course in which, as always, some students did better than others. Why? Some worked harder, and some are smarter.
Where am I going with this? Back to the question:
Why is it true that Germany and Sweden are running an export surplus?
I do understand that economic policies make a difference, even if I have trouble grasping exactly how it works. But at some point, someone actually has to build something that someone wants to buy if export surpluses are to happen, no? I have long been worried about what I see as a pervasive view in the U.S. that the key to success is learning how to make a financial deal. Moving money around is important, no doubt about it, but for a country to prosper, that may not be enough.
So the point about free floating currencies, is that they should always move move to choke of current account deficits. That is to say, if you export something to another country, the buyer must first buy your currency, and then use that currency to buy your stuff. Thus an export surplus will move to strengthen a currency, and a deficit will weaken it. Since a strengthening currency makes labour in your country more expensive, it will make it cheaper for the buyer to buy from elsewhere, and you move towards an equilibrium where every currency has a trade balance of zero.
In practice, through innovation and development and changing regulations and circumstances, the currency is always playing catch up to the Balance of trade. Its a dynamical process moving to wards a constantly changing equilibrium. But still, large trade imbalances between regions are impossible in the long run unless you have currency manipulation of some description.
However, this analysis only applies between currency regions, not within one. Within one the exchange rate is fixed so there is no break on imbalances within a zone except if they are applied fiscally by the government. Hence we have this terrible situation where the trade imbalances between regions in the euro zone are bigger than the trade deficit of the eurozone as a whole:
consier this graph
so we can see that the eurozone has approximately an imbalance of +-10bn euros (per month). For germany,
so germany's trade imbalance is larger than that for the whole EU despite being only a fraction the size. Also notice how the imbalance grew substantially post euro. (1999). This is because following the introduction of the euro, the currency became, effectively, the weighted average of all of the eurozone's individual currencies. Thus the poor performance of the periphery has been holding down the price of labour in germany, which otherwise would have tended to increase as the DM appreciated.
It is this effect that has made germany the biggest beneficiary of the eurozone, while the periphery is lumbered with an exchange rate much too high to make their economies competitive. If this was to happen in a single country, the normal answer is to create a tax differential, which makes it cheaper to invest in the poorer areas. This will generally happen automatically if your income tax is bracketed, since the more expensive places pay more in the top bracket.
Of course, you are right that government policy, regulation, quality of education etc all make a difference, but these differences would normally be priced in through the exchange rate mechanism. The result would be a worse exchange rate, and it would be more difficult to import stuff, so you would be poorer on a world stage, but your exchange rate would adjust to make your economy competitive anyway. Moreover, there is pretty good evidence that the trend line for economic growth depends mostly on technological innovation which is easily imported, and so all industrial economies are basically on the same trendline, policies and stuff normally just mean that better regulation is a one time event, and does not compound. E.g. Germany might be 20% better than britian, then it will be 20% richer, but this difference will not grow, unlike technological innovation which compounds, and we get exponential growth in economies.
Finally, within a currency zone, there is a competitive advantage to clustering. Car firms in a country tend to locate their manufacturing bases close to each other, either because they have similar requirements or because then suppliers move together or whatever, so for example, detroit became well known for its cars, las vegas for gambling etc. It could well be that the end state for a euro-state is an industrial north and a goods and service dominated south. That would be ok if there were large fiscal transfers, and it works ok in the US, where levels of industry vary widely between states, but it is not ok if each country sees itself in a competitive zero-sum game with the others. In fact, the balance of trade issue is self defeating, the north cannot keep making stuff for the south, as eventually there just will not be enough euros left in the south to pay for anything
.
SO in summary:
(1) The eurozone story is one of balance of trade issues.
(2) If the desired endstate is homogeneous, with every country doing roughly the same, then there must be large scale wealth transfers to negate the effects of clustering.
(3) On current pathways the endstate will be an industrial north and a south so impoverished that they cannot purchase any goods from the north. This will eventually fix the balance of trade, but it will not be a healthy end.
PS: A random aside. Given the analysis I provided above, you might wonder how the US has had such a massive balance of trade deficit for so long without its currency weakening enough to choke it off. I think I have hit upon the answer to this: OPEC sells oil in dollars. Thus, if the EU wants to buy oil from OPEC, first we must buy dollar, and that supports the strength of the US. Essentially the US does not make up the whole of the dollar currency zone. So if OPEC exports 30 million barrels a day, at $100 a barrel, then that is a dollar export of 30*30,000,000*100 = 90bn per month, or around twice the US trade deficit. Of course, we should only count barrels sold to non-dollar countries, I.e. not the US, so if half of OPEC production goes to non dollar currencies, then that exactly supports the US trade deficit, and prevents the dollar weakening.
Also, just look how correlated the US BOT is with the price of oil. Pretty convincing IMO.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper