Couple of things I don't seem to get
#1
Posted 2010-June-05, 21:39
Auction #1:
1♣-P-1♠-P-
2♣-P-2♥???
If this sequence forcing? Or, would Responder always go through 2♦ with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2♥ is passable?
Auction #2:
1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)
2♣-P-2♦???
Same general question -- is 2♦ forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2♠?
For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF.
-P.J. Painter.
#2
Posted 2010-June-06, 02:47
kenrexford, on Jun 5 2010, 10:39 PM, said:
Auction #1:
1♣-P-1♠-P-
2♣-P-2♥???
If this sequence forcing? Or, would Responder always go through 2♦ with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2♥ is passable?.
2♥ is forcing (1 round) , with 4+ ♥s
2♦ is forcing without 4♥s.
I know some experts play a nf 2♥ here, but I don't think it is standard.
kenrexford, on Jun 5 2010, 10:39 PM, said:
1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)
2♣-P-2♦???
Same general question -- is 2♦ forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2♠?
For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF.
2♦ is natural and NF.
Strong hands can choose between a GF 2♠, a double (if they can stand a penalty pass) or 3♦.
Edit : Sorry, misread the auction as
1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)
P-P-2♦???
With the original auction 2 , 2♦ for me is F1.
#3
Posted 2010-June-06, 03:33
2h=natural and nf
here I assume 2d would be art and 100% game force
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example two....2d=art and 100% gf.
here I just assume 2d=art and 100% game force.
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I note 100% the opp of the post above me.
#4
Posted 2010-June-06, 14:15
#5
Posted 2010-June-06, 16:21
Still, you can play it both ways. I prefer ken's way #2.
1m 1M
2m 1st step = F1
#6
Posted 2010-June-06, 17:23
barmar, on Jun 6 2010, 04:15 PM, said:
That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1.
Example #2 is NF.
That seems pretty foundational.
Carl
#7
Posted 2010-June-06, 22:44
Carl, on Jun 6 2010, 07:23 PM, said:
barmar, on Jun 6 2010, 04:15 PM, said:
That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1.
Example #2 is NF.
That seems pretty foundational.
This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game.
OP is asking about "expert standard", and I don't claim to know anything about that, so I'll leave that conversation to the experts.
#8
Posted 2010-June-07, 02:31
First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery. It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2♥ here as forcing.
Second one is less obvious. If opener has long ♣ and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract. Obviously 2♦ is forcing if there's no intervention. With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support. Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score? That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach.
#9
Posted 2010-June-07, 05:51
Free, on Jun 7 2010, 03:31 AM, said:
First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery. It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2♥ here as forcing.
Second one is less obvious. If opener has long ♣ and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract. Obviously 2♦ is forcing if there's no intervention. With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support. Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score? That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach.
♠Qxxx ♥Kxxx ♦Kxxxx ♣--?
♠Qxx ♥Kxxxx ♦Q10xxx ♣--?
♠Qxx ♥Kxxx ♦Q10xxxx ♣--?
When there is no spade raise, Responder having spades seems reasonably likely.
Not that this answers anything, but "we found a playable spot" seems to be an overbid.
-P.J. Painter.
#10
Posted 2010-June-07, 07:26
In both cases it's probably a reasonable spot and there are no guarantees we won't make thing worse by bidding. If you get Doubled in 2♣ you can still run to 2♦ and hope for the best. I admit that it's definitely possible 2♦ is a better spot, we just don't know.
If you play 2♦ as NF, I'd definitely suggest you treat it as longer ♦, to avoid opener bidding 2♥ on 2-2 in the reds.
#11
Posted 2010-June-07, 07:31
Bbradley62, on Jun 7 2010, 12:44 AM, said:
Carl, on Jun 6 2010, 07:23 PM, said:
barmar, on Jun 6 2010, 04:15 PM, said:
That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1.
Example #2 is NF.
That seems pretty foundational.
This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game.
I'm sorry, I missed the notrump bid in the example shown.
I looked up what I thought was the original example in The Bidding Dictionary afterward, and that still says forcing.
I think I am going to stick with reading my books.
Carl
#12
Posted 2010-June-07, 21:13
#13
Posted 2010-June-07, 21:58
1 Opener has rebid 1nt. Now responder must jump or reverse to force (although nmf is a common convention)
2 Responder is a passed hand
3 Responder made a prior non-forcing call
4 Responder's bid is at the game level
5 Opener passed the opponents' one-level overcall (basically implies a weak nt so really same as number 1)
I would say that both the given sequences are forcing in standard (obviously one could agree otherwise)
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit

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