[aguahombre]

because he would open a prepared 1D?

[jdonn]

aguahombre, on May 21 2009, 12:22 PM, said:

because he would open a prepared 1D?

Most don't do that all the time, and some don't do that any of the time. Anyway as I read your post, it essentially amounts to telling me that it's ok if I don't agree with the law, but I should follow the law here. Which I don't agree with.

Have you also considered that opponents may have just seven spades?

[aguahombre]

jdonn, on May 21 2009, 01:37 PM, said:

aguahombre, on May 21 2009, 12:22 PM, said:

because he would open a prepared 1D?

Most don't do that all the time, and some don't do that any of the time. Anyway as I read your post, it essentially amounts to telling me that it's ok if I don't agree with the law, but I should follow the law here. Which I don't agree with.

Have you also considered that opponents may have just seven spades?

yes if a four card overcall or a strange 2S advance, then they would only have 7 spades. Am surprised to learn that so few players would open 1D with 3 1 4 5 and a minimum. They are not prepared for an uncontested auction either. If the diamonds were so bad and the clubs so good, pard might have rebid 2C after the overcall to prevent my problem now (and possibly create another one, admittedly).

I was just thinking of what MY partners would have to open one club and not have a rebid after the spade overcall.

And no, certainly everyone "agrees" with the LAW whether they call it that, or not.
Was just giving another way of judging this hand without it.