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6-6 And opponents open 1NT

#1 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 14:44

Nobody Vul. at IMPs you hold:

A9xxxx
---------
KQT9xx
Q

(1NT) - Pass - (2) - ?

1NT was 14-16
2 was a transfer

Your bid?
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#2 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 14:51

Super-duper Leaping Michaels?

I mean, 2 seems like the default bid, but 4 might be interpreted correctly. 3, IMO, might be taken as gambling without a stopper.

I think I'd just low-ball 2, myself.
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#3 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 14:57

2
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#4 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 14:59

I just bid 2, michaels. I can hopefully get in some number of diamonds later.

If I just bid 4 now 1) partner's brain will explode, and 2) He still may not know what to do.
Kevin Fay
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#5 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 15:31

2H, assuming it is Michaes.

Even uniscussed, partner wont pass,
I get a 2nd chance to bid, and partner
my understand it next round.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   vuroth 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 15:46

Wouldn't be sure that 2 would be understood. Is X now, followed by up to 4 later, clear in that case?
Still decidedly intermediate - don't take my guesses as authoritative.

"gwnn" said:

rule number 1 in efficient forum reading:
hanp does not always mean literally what he writes.
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#7 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 15:54

The bidding could easily be at 4H when it gets back to us, and it won't be so easy to mention diamonds at that stage. Would it be terrible to make a lead-directing double now and hope to bid 4S later?

Edit: lol. Vuroth beat me to it.
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#8 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 16:09

If I double now and bid 4S later partner will never believe I have 6 spades.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#9 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 16:12

mtvesuvius, on May 13 2009, 03:44 PM, said:

Nobody Vul. at IMPs you hold:

A9xxxx
---------
KQT9xx
Q

(1NT) - Pass - (2) - ?

1NT was 14-16
2 was a transfer

Your bid?

2h
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#10 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 19:14

hanp, on May 13 2009, 05:09 PM, said:

If I double now and bid 4S later partner will never believe I have 6 spades.

If the auction goes 1NT-P-2D-X; 2H-P-P-4S he might. He may be unsure of whether we have 5 or 6, but he will be clear on the fact that our shape is extreme and that we have strong diamonds.

Meanwhile, I don't see how bidding 2H will get the 6 spades across. If you follow up by bidding diamonds partner may think you're 5-6. If you follow with more spades, partner won't appreciate the diamond strength. He might not even know for sure which minor is ours, and there's a very real chance of LHO bidding 3H over our 2H and making life difficult.
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#11 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-May-13, 20:43

Depends. Some people play a x as showing Ds and a 2H bid as takeout.
If I had the Michaels agreement, then 2H is a given. Otherwise I bid 2S.
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#12 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 01:04

I have the agreement that 2 is the take out. Suboptimal for this hand.

(Else this is a non problem anyway- you have a bid to show a two suiter with spades and you have a two suiter with spades. So hwat is the question again?)

I think double followed by x spade shows my hand and x will be up to 4 depending on the bidding so far.
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#13 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 01:17

2. 3 is possible but I'm not sure its to my benefit to crowd the auction.
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#14 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 03:14

2 + drive alone to the 5 level seems obvious.

For a beginner, however, I recommend 2 + some nr. of diamonds.
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#15 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 08:33

Phil, on May 14 2009, 02:17 AM, said:

2. 3 is possible but I'm not sure its to my benefit to crowd the auction.

I've had this auction before and partner intended it as "bid 3NT with a stopper."

I don't recall the hand but at the time this idea worked out very well.

I might be convinced it's better to play it as something else.
Kevin Fay
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#16 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 11:47

Codo, on May 14 2009, 02:04 AM, said:

I have the agreement that 2 is the take out. Suboptimal.

Agree.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#17 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 14:20

hanp, on May 14 2009, 12:47 PM, said:

Codo, on May 14 2009, 02:04 AM, said:

I have the agreement that 2 is the take out. Suboptimal.

Agree.

What would a subsequent double of 2 be?
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#18 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-May-14, 14:38

Phil, on May 14 2009, 03:20 PM, said:

hanp, on May 14 2009, 12:47 PM, said:

Codo, on May 14 2009, 02:04 AM, said:

I have the agreement that 2 is the take out. Suboptimal.

Agree.

What would a subsequent double of 2 be?

For most sane people, takeout. Hence why an immediate 2 is usually Michaels.

If the initial 2 is takeout, Advancer cannot convert that too often. I suppose a hand exists where passing 2 for takeout makes sense, but...
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#19 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2009-May-15, 00:35

Phil, on May 15 2009, 05:20 AM, said:

hanp, on May 14 2009, 12:47 PM, said:

Codo, on May 14 2009, 02:04 AM, said:

I have the agreement that 2 is the take out. Suboptimal.

Agree.

What would a subsequent double of 2 be?


weak take out
Kind Regards

Roland


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#20 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2009-May-15, 16:24

So, it looks like 2 is the consensus here... The auction continues:

(1NT) - Pass - (2) - 2
(Pass) - 2NT - (3) - ?

Now what?
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